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A 38-year-old African American man with HIV infection presents with numerous dyspigmented macules and patches on the extremities, abdomen, and chest; the lesions are smooth, nontender, and minimally pruritic. He has been noncompliant with antiretroviral therapy since his diagnosis 3 years earlier.

What Caused These Dyspigmented Lesions in an HIV-Infected Man?  Correct Answer: D

A 38-year-old African American man with HIV infection presents with numerous dyspigmented macules and patches on the extremities, abdomen, and chest; the lesions are smooth, nontender, and minimally pruritic.

What Caused These Dyspigmented Lesions in an HIV-Infected Man?

Acromegaly was diagnosed in a 36-year-old woman who presented with loss of vision in the right eye that had initially involved the peripheral field. MRI scans of the brain revealed a 6 × 6 × 4-cm sellar mass with suprasellar and parasellar extension encasing the right cavernous sinus and carotid artery.

A. Excess growth hormone production from the pituitary gland as a result of a functional adenoma is the most common cause.

B. It remains undiagnosed for up to 10 years on average.

C. The diagnostic test of choice is an oral glucose tolerance test.

D. End-organ manifestations (eg, arthropathy, cranial nerve palsies, diabetes) contribute to overall mortality increase.

Acromegaly was diagnosed in a 36-year-old woman who presented with loss of vision in the right eye that had initially involved the peripheral field. Which statement about acromegaly is NOT true?

Clinical Topics

Acromegaly: A Pop Quiz

A 5-year-old boy with a history of atopic dermatitis since 6 weeks of age, presents with a rash around his mouth that has been present for approximately 1 year. The patient’s mother reports that desonide topical cream was applied to the affected area for about 5 days, which initially resulted in improvement, however the rash returned after this medication was discontinued. The rash also recently improved after the patient took amoxicillin for an infection. She also notes that the patient has been licking his lips more frequently.

On examination there is an erythematous papulopustular eruption restricted to the perioral region, with sparing of the vermillion border. Mild hyperpigmentation is noted on the patient’s neck. There is no active involvement of other areas of the body.

The eruption has been present for 1 year and is restricted to the perioral region. What is included in your differential? 

Rash Around the Mouth of a 5-year-old Child

Five days after a 41-year-old man started taking a new medication, this superficial but painful lesion appeared on his neck. It slowly resolved after the drug was stopped and a topical corticosteroid was applied twice daily.

Five days after starting a new medication, this lesion appeared on a man’s neck. It slowly resolved after the drug was stopped. Which of these drugs do you suspect might have caused the lesion?

Round Red Patch on a Man's Neck

An 89-year-old woman with a history of biopsy-proven actinic keratosis on her scalp is seen for a new erosion on the right frontal area. Two weeks of twice-daily mupirocin has brought no improvement and now crusting and purulent exudate are seen. Skin cultures taken show normal flora.

C. Erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp

E. Chronic actinic damage with secondary infection

An 89-year-old woman is seen for an erosion on the frontal area of the scalp. History is positive for actinic keratosis. What's your Dx?

Crusty Scalp Lesion 

A 76-year-old woman seeks your attention for an asymptomatic “red spot” on her neck. She has a history of multiple non-melanoma skin cancers.

Squamous cell carcinoma in situ (Bowen  disease)

Lichenoid keratosis (an inflammatory variant of seborrheic keratosis)

A 76-year-old woman seeks your attention for an asymptomatic “red spot” on her neck. What does this look like to you?

What's This "Red Spot"?

A 67-year-old woman noted the appearance of several non-tender, rock-hard, purple-colored nodules on her legs. Her medical history was significant for distant non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

A 67-year-old woman noted the appearance of several non-tender, rock-hard, purple-colored nodules on her legs. Her medical history was significant for distant non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The violaceous color and configuration of the skin lesions suggests which of the following? 

Hard Purple Nodules: Your Dx?

Eric Parks, MD

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