What would your diagnosis be in this young man and how would that inform your next step?
A 28-year-old man with Crohn colitis on maintenance therapy with infliximab 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks presents with perianal pain. On examination, he has a 1-cm tender lesion with fluctuance near the anus.
Which of the following should be the next step in management?
Clinical Tips for Using Antibiotics and Corticosteroids in IBD
January 5th 2013The goals of therapy for patients with inflammatory bowel disorder include inducing and maintaining a steroid-free remission, preventing and treating the complications of the disease, minimizing treatment toxicity, achieving mucosal healing, and enhancing quality of life.